Jammu & Kashmir Prosecuting officer Mock Test - 4 | English Medium

JAMMU AND KASHMIR PROSECUTING OFFICER

MOCK TEST-4

1. Punishment for "habitual offenders" is provided under the Prevention of Corruption Act (PC Act), 1988:

a. Section 13

b. Section 14

c. Section 17

d. Section 20

2. The PC Act, 1988 repealed which earlier Act?

a. The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1947

b. The Indian Penal Code, 1860

c. The Criminal Law Amendment Act, 1952

d. Both (a) and (c)

3. Under the Prevention of Corruption Act (PC Act), 1988, A public servant ‘S’ accepts ₹10,000 to process a routine file on time. Under the 2018 Amendment, is ‘S’ guilty if the duty performed was NOT improper?

a. No, because the act performed was legal.

b. Yes, Section 7 Explanation 1 states the obtaining of undue advantage itself is an offence even if performance is not improper.

c. No, if the money is credited to a government fund.

d. Yes, but only under the Indian Penal Code.

4. Under Section 8 of the Prevention of Corruption Act (PC Act), 1988, a person giving a bribe under compulsion must report the matter within how many days to avoid prosecution?

a. 24 hours.

b. 48 hours.

c. 7 days.

d. 15 days

5. Which of the following judicial officers is strictly ineligible for appointment as a Special Judge under Section 3(2) of the Prevention of Corruption Act (PC Act), 1988?

a. A retired Additional Sessions Judge.

b. A serving Assistant Sessions Judge.

c. A Chief Judicial Magistrate (CJM) with 10 years of experience.

d. A person who has previously served as a Sessions Judge in a different state

6. Is the accused a competent witness for the defense under the Prevention of Corruption Act (PC Act), 1988?

a. No, due to the right against self-incrimination.

b. Yes, under Section 21, but only at their own request.

c. Yes, and the prosecution can force them to testify.

d. Only in cases involving disproportionate assets.

7. Which of the following is true regarding the territorial applicability of the UAPA?

a. It applies only to Indian citizens within India.

b. It applies only to designated "disturbed areas."

c. It extends to the whole of India and applies to crimes committed outside India by Indian citizens.

d. It does not apply to foreign nationals.

8. Under Section 16(1)(a) of UAPA, what is the prescribed punishment if a terrorist act results in the death of any person?

a. Imprisonment for 10 years and fine

b. Death or imprisonment for life, and fine

c. Life imprisonment without parole

d. Minimum 14 years of rigorous imprisonment

9. Can a civil suit be filed against a State Government officer for damage caused during a search operation conducted in good faith under the UAPA?

a. Yes, in all cases.

b. No, Section 47 bars suits, prosecutions, and other legal proceedings for such actions.

c. Yes, but only if the officer is a junior rank.

d. Only if the Supreme Court gives special permission.

10. How many witnesses must be present when the District Magistrate makes the list of movable properties under Section 8(2) of UAPA?

a. One gazetted officer.

b. Two respectable witnesses.

c. Five members of the local locality.

d. No witnesses are required if the officer is authorized in writing.

11. The definition of "terrorist act" for the purposes of the Act is provided in which section, as referenced by Section 2(1)(k) of UAPA?

a. Section 3

b. Section 10

c. Section 15

d. Section 25

12. Which authority is defined as the "Designated Authority" under Section 2(1)(e) of UAPA for the purpose of forfeiture of property?

a. Any officer of the NIA not below the rank of Inspector.

b. Such officer of the Central Government or State Government as may be specified by notification.

c. The Chief Minister of the concerned state.

d. The Supreme Court Registry.

13. No order under section 47 to be refused or modified unless decision of the case is prejudicially affected under which of the following in the Code of Civil Procedure?

a. Section 90A

b. Section 95A

c. Section 99A

d. Section 101B

14. Which of the following deals with where the subject- matter of the suit is immovable property in the Code of Civil Procedure?

a. Order 5, Rule 30

b. Order 9, Rule 12

c. Order 7, Rule 3

d. Order 10, Rule 22

15. Which of the following deals with the procedure when party fails to present written statement called for by Court in the Code of Civil Procedure?

a. Order 5, Rule 30

b. Order 8, Rule 10

c. Order 6, Rule 10

d. Order 10, Rule 22

16. Which of the following deals with power to order any point to be proved by affidavit in the Code of Civil Procedure?

a. Order 12, Rule 5

b. Order 14, Rule 20

c. Order 19, Rule 1

d. Order 11, Rule 7

17. The word ‘prescribed’ used in s. 107 of the Code of Civil Procedure means:

a. The rules contained First Schedule

b. The rules under s. 122 and s. 125 of the Code of Civil Procedure

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of these

18. Which of the following deals with the power of Supreme Court to transfer suits, etc. in the Code of Civil Procedure?

a. Section 18

b. Section 20

c. Section 25

d. Section 28

19. Which of the following deals with the written Statement in the Code of Civil Procedure?

a. Order 8, Rule 1

b. Order 4, Rule 13

c. Order 6, Rule 10

d. Order 10, Rule 22

20. Under S. 89 the court shall formulate the terms of settle¬ment and give them to the parties for their observations and after receiving the observations of the parties, the court may reformulate the terms of possible settlement and the same for:

I. Arbitration

II. Conciliation

III. Judicial settlement including settlement through Lok Adalat

IV. Mediation

OPTIONS:

a. I, III

b. II, III

c. Ill, IV

d. All of these

21. Decree-holder is:

a. Any person in whose favour a decree has been passed

b. An order capable of execution has been made

c. Either (a) or (b)

d. None of these

22. Constructive res-judicata is contained in:

a. Explanation III to section 11

b. Explanation IV to section 11

c. Explanation VI to section 11

d. Explanation VII to section 11.

23. A lease of immovable property from year to year is terminable by:

a. 15 days' notice

b. 30 days' notice

c. Six months' notice

d. One year's notice

24. A "Sale" of immovable property of the value of one hundred rupees and upwards can be made only by:

a. Oral agreement

b. A registered instrument

c. Delivery of possession

d. Affidavit

25. A "Gift" under Section 122 TPA must be accepted by the donee:

a. Within 90 days

b. During the lifetime of the donor and while he is still capable of giving

c. Only after the donor's death

d. Within one year of registration

26. The minimum number of witnesses required for the attestation of a gift of immovable property is:

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. None

27. Under Section 5, "Transfer of Property" means an act by which a living person conveys property to:

a. One or more other living persons

b. Himself

c. Himself and one or more other living persons

d. All of the above

28. Which section of TPA deals with the "Doctrine of Election"?

a. Section 19

b. Section 35

c. Section 41

d. Section 52

29. According to Section 3 of TPA, a person is said to have "notice" of a fact when:

a. He actually knows it

b. He would have known it but for willful abstention from inquiry

c. He would have known it but for gross negligence

d. All of the above

30. The "Rule against Perpetuity" is found in which section of TPA?

a. Section 10

b. Section 14

c. Section 18

d. Section 25

31. When did the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, come into force?

a. January 1, 1882

b. June 1, 1882

c. July 1, 1882

d. August 15, 1882

32. Which of the following is excluded from the definition of "immovable property" under Section 3 of TPA?

a. Land

b. Buildings

c. Standing timber, growing crops, or grass

d. Hereditary allowances

33. An acknowledgement must be made:

a. After the limitation period expires

b. Before the limitation period expires

c. During the trial

d. After the decree is passed

34. Section 3 of the limitation Act mandates that every suit filed after the prescribed period shall be:

a. Dismissed only if the defendant raises the plea

b. Dismissed by the court suo motu (on its own)

c. Allowed if the cause is genuine

d. Referred to a higher court

35. The Law of Limitation is a:

a. Substantive Law

b. Procedural Law

c. Personal Law

d. Natural Law

36. The Limitation Act, 1963, came into force on:

a. 1st January 1963

b. 1st January 1964

c. 14th October 1963

d. 26th January 1964

37. What is the limitation period for a suit for possession of immovable property based on title?

a. 3 years

b. 12 years

c. 30 years

d. 20 years

38. The limitation period for most suits relating to Contracts is:

a. 1 year

b. 3 years

c. 12 years

d. 5 years

39. Using a child for pornographic purposes is an offence under POCSO:

a. Section 13

b. Section 14

c. Section 15

d. Section 18

40. According to Section 24 of POCSO, a child shall NOT be detained in a police station:

a. During the day

b. During the night for any reason

c. Without a lawyer

d. For more than 2 hours

41. The POCSO Act mandates that the trial should be completed, as far as possible, within:

a. 6 months

b. 1 year from the date of taking cognizance

c. 2 years

d. 3 months

42. What happens if a person makes a "false complaint" with the intent to humiliate or blackmail someone under POCSO?

a. Nothing, because the law only protects children.

b. They can be punished with imprisonment up to 6 months or a fine.

c. They are given a warning by the judge.

d. The case is simply closed without any action.

43. Under Section 15 of POCSO, what is the punishment for a person who "stores or possesses" child pornographic material for commercial purposes for the first time?

a. Fine only.

b. Imprisonment up to 1 year.

c. Imprisonment up to 3 years or fine or both.

d. Mandatory life imprisonment.

44. Can a child be repeatedly called to testify in court under the POCSO Act?

a. Yes, as many times as needed.

b. No, the child shall not be called repeatedly.

c. Only if the defense requests it.

d. Only if the judge is changed.

45. The term "Access" in the context of a computer system is defined in which section of the IT Act 2000:

a. Section 2(1)(a)

b. Section 2(1)(b)

c. Section 3

d. Section 43

46. Section 43A of the IT Act 2000 deals with the liability of body corporates for:

a. Hacking systems

b. Failure to protect sensitive personal data

c. Sending spam emails

d. Overcharging customers

47. "Digital Signature Certificate" (DSC) is issued by:

a. Controller of Certifying Authorities

b. Certifying Authority (CA)

c. Ministry of IT

d. Local Police Station

48. Which section of the IT Act 2000 empowers the government to issue directions for "Punishment for sending offensive messages through communication service, etc”?

a. Section 66A

b. Section 69A

c. Section 70

d. Section 43A

49. Penalty for "Breach of Confidentiality and Privacy" is under of the IT Act 2000:

a. Section 70

b. Section 72

c. Section 74

d. Section 75

50. Section 38 of the IT Act 2000 relates to:

a. Hacking

b. Revocation of Digital Signature Certificate.

c. Cyber stalking

d. Phishing

51. Section 31A NDPS of the Act deals with which of the following?

a. Death penalty for certain repeat offenses

b. Bail conditions

c. Search and seizure

d. Community service

52. Section 52A of NDPS primarily deals with:

a. Disposal of seized narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances

b. Special procedures for trial

c. Enhanced punishment for second-time offenders

d. Arrest of a woman after sunset

53. "Controlled Delivery" is a technique defined in Section 2(viib) of NDPS to:

a. Deliver drugs to hospitals.

b. Allow illicit consignments to pass out of or through India to identify traffickers.

c. Monitor the sale of legal medicines.

d. Regulate the transport of opium by the government.

54. Under Section 3, the Central Government has the power to add or omit a substance from the list of Psychotropic Substances. This is done via:

a. Parliamentary Resolution.

b. Gazette Notification based on international treaties or medical evidence.

c. Recommendation of the State Government only.

d. Order of the Supreme Court.

55. In Karnail Singh v. State of Haryana (2009), the Constitution Bench ruled regarding Section 42 of NDPS that "total non-compliance" is fatal, but "delayed compliance" is permissible if:

a. The officer was busy with other cases.

b. The delay is explained and does not cause prejudice to the accused.

c. The accused is a known habitual offender.

d. The seizure happened in a public place.

56. Does the mandatory requirement of Section 50 (Right to be searched before a Magistrate/Gazetted Officer) apply when the drug is recovered from a "jute bag" held by the person?

a. Yes, it is an extension of the person.

b. No, it only applies to the search of the "person" (physical body/pockets).

c. Only if the person is a woman

d. Only if the quantity is commercial.

57. Which Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 to 18?

a. 42nd Amendment

b. 44th Amendment

c. 61st Amendment

d. 73rd Amendment

58. The 'Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities' is appointed by:

a. The President

b. The Prime Minister

c. The Ministry of Home Affairs

d. The Ministry of Minority Affairs

59. Under Article 3, the Parliament can alter the boundaries of a State:

a. Only with the consent of the State Legislature.

b. Without the consent of the State Legislature.

c. Only after a referendum in that State.

d. Only by a Constitutional Amendment under Article 368.

60. 'Equality before law' is a negative concept borrowed from ____, while 'Equal protection of laws' is a positive concept from ____.

a. USA, UK

b. UK, USA

c. UK, Canada

d. USA, Ireland

61. The 'Council of Ministers' is collectively responsible to:

a. The President

b. The Prime Minister

c. The Lok Sabha

d. The Parliament

62. Who decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?

a. The President

b. The Finance Minister

c. The Speaker of Lok Sabha

d. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha

63. Which Article provides for 'Uniform Civil Code'?

a. Article 40

b. Article 44

c. Article 48

d. Article 50

64. The 'National Commission for Backward Classes' (NCBC) was given constitutional status by:

a. 101st Amendment

b. 102nd Amendment

c. 103rd Amendment

d. 104th Amendment

65. In a Parliamentary form of government, the 'Real Executive' is:

a. The President

b. The Council of Ministers led by the PM

c. The Parliament

d. The Civil Services

66. The 'Separation of Judiciary from Executive' is mentioned in:

a. The Preamble

b. Fundamental Rights

c. Directive Principles of State Policy

d. Seventh Schedule

67. Under the BNS, a person commits an offense by abetting another to perform an act, but the person abetted performs the act with a different intention or knowledge than that of the abettor. Which of the following is the correct punishment for the abettor under Section 50 of the BNS?

a. The abettor is punished for the act as it was actually committed by the abetted person.

b. The abettor is punished for the act intended by them, regardless of the act actually committed.

c. The abettor is not liable for any punishment as there was no meeting of minds.

d. The abettor is liable for the lesser of the two punishments, either for the intended act or the actual act.

68. The BNS introduces the concept of "petty organized crime." Which of the following activities, when done by a group of two or more persons, would fall under this category, as opposed to regular organized crime?

a. Widespread drug trafficking across states.

b. A gang of three persons habitually committing theft from vehicles parked on city streets.

c. A network of individuals involved in large-scale human trafficking.

d. A group of four persons engaged in international counterfeit currency operations.

69. Opinion expressed in good faith about the merits of a decided case or conduct of parties/witnesses is protected under:

a. Exception 5 to Sec. 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

b. Exception 6 to Sec. 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

c. Exception 7 to Sec. 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

d. Exception 9 to Sec. 356 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023

70. A is taking a stroll in a public park and finds a mobile phone lying on a bench. Initially, A intends to hand it over to the nearest police station. However, upon reaching the station, A has a change of heart and decides to keep the phone for personal use, without making any effort to find the owner. Which of the following offenses has A committed under the BNS?

a. Theft under Section 303, because the intention to dishonestly misappropriate was formed at the time of moving the property.

b. Theft under Section 303, because the subsequent dishonest intent relates back to the initial taking.

c. Dishonest misappropriation under Section 314, as the property was not taken from the owner's possession with dishonest intent from the outset.

d. Criminal breach of trust under Section 316, because the property was initially taken under a presumption of honest intention.

71. A snatches a gold chain from B's neck while B is walking on a public street. A makes no attempt to cause hurt but only uses sudden force to seize the property. Under the BNS, what offense has A committed?

a. Theft, because no hurt was caused.

b. Robbery, because the property was taken by force.

c. Snatching, a new specific offense under Section 304 of the BNS.

d. Theft in a public place

72. A trespasser, with the intention to commit theft, covertly enters a house by slipping through a partially open window that was not intended for entry, specifically timing his entry to avoid being seen by the residents. Which of the following is the most accurate classification of the offense committed by the trespasser under the BNS?

a. Simple house-trespass under Section 329(2).

b. Lurking house-trespass under Section 330(1), but not house-breaking.

c. House-breaking under Section 330(2)(b), but not lurking house-trespass.

d. Both lurking house-trespass and house-breaking under Section 330

73. A is attacked by a person who, due to a severe mental disorder, is incapable of knowing the nature of his act. A uses reasonable force in self-defence to stop the attack. Is A protected under the BNS?

a. No, because the attacker committed no "offense" in the legal sense.

b. Yes, because the right of private defence is available even against acts of persons who are not criminally liable due to mental disorder.

c. Only if A can prove he did not know about the attacker's mental condition.

d. No, A should have sought public assistance.

74. A is the manager of a warehouse and is entrusted with the care of goods. A dishonestly takes a few items from the warehouse for his personal use. Under which BNS section would A be charged?

a. Theft under Section 303.

b. Theft by a clerk or servant under Section 306.

c. Criminal breach of trust under Section 316.

d. Dishonest misappropriation under Section 314

75. Z is thrown from his horse, and is insensible. A, a surgeon, finds that Z requires to Consent known to be given under fear or misconception. Exclusion of acts which are offences independently of harm caused. A, not intending Z’s death, but in good faith, for Z’s benefit, performs the trepan before Z recovers his power of judging for himself. A has committed?

a. Offence under BNS

b. No offence

c. Both a or b

d. None of the above

76. A woman dies by suicide five years into her marriage. Evidence shows she was being harassed for dowry by her in-laws, but the last incident of harassment occurred eight months before her death. Will the presumption of dowry death apply under the BNS?

a. Yes, because the harassment occurred within seven years of marriage.

b. No, because the harassment was not "soon before" the death.

c. It depends on the nature of the harassment, but the time gap may weaken the presumption.

d. Yes, but the prosecution must prove that the harassment was a direct cause of the suicide.

77. What is the deadline for a Magistrate to furnish the required documents to the accused and the victim under Section 230 of the BNSS?

a. Within 7 days of the accused's appearance.

b. Within 14 days of the accused's appearance or production.

c. As soon as possible, with no specific time limit.

d. Within 30 days of the police report being submitted.

78. What does Section 508 of The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 address?

a. The power of the High Court to transfer cases.

b. The validity of proceedings that take place in a wrong court.

c. The power of the Supreme Court to hear appeals.

d. The granting of bail by a Magistrate.

79. Claims or objections regarding property attachment under Section 85 must be filed under Section 87 of BNSS within how many months from the attachment date?

a. 1 month

b. 3 months

c. 6 months

d. 1 year

80. Who can make an arrest under Section 41 of the BNSS?

a. Only a Judicial Magistrate

b. Only an Executive Magistrate

c. Both a Judicial and an Executive Magistrate

d. Any police officer, but not a Magistrate

81. Under Section 210(1)(b) of BNSS, how may a Magistrate take cognizance of an offence based on a police report?

a. Only when the report is submitted physically.

b. Only if the report is submitted in electronic mode.

c. Upon receiving a police report submitted in any mode, including electronic.

d. The Magistrate cannot take cognizance based on a police report.

82. An advocate regularly practices in the Magistrate's Court of a certain city. According to Section 526 of The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, where is this advocate NOT allowed to sit as a Magistrate?

a. In any court in a different city.

b. In the High Court of that state.

c. In the very same Magistrate's Court where they practice.

d. In the Sessions Court of that city.

83. Under Section 514 of The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, what is the limitation period for a court to take cognizance of an offense punishable with a fine only?

a. Three years

b. One year

c. Six months

d. No limitation period

84. A Magistrate who is not legally allowed to tender a pardon mistakenly grants one. Which condition is necessary under Section 506 of BNSS, 2023, for the pardon not to be invalidated?

a. A higher court must approve the pardon.

b. The accused must accept the pardon.

c. The Magistrate must have acted "in good faith".

d. The victim must have approved the pardon.

85. What new provision does the BNSS introduce regarding the use of technology in serving summonses?

a. Summonses may now be served by a police officer via text message or email.

b. Section 63 mandates the issuance of summonses in electronic form.

c. A summon can be served by courier service if the person is not available.

d. A summon can be served on any neighbour of the summoned person.

86. Under Section 185 of the BNSS, what procedure is mandated during a search and seizure conducted without a warrant?

a. The entire search and seizure must be recorded via audio-visual means.

b. The officer must obtain prior written permission from a Magistrate.

c. The officer must conduct the search only in the presence of two witnesses from the local area.

d. The officer must give the person whose property is being searched a duplicate copy of the seizure list.

87. The BNSS, 2023, while replacing the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC), omits the term "Metropolitan Areas" and provisions relating to "Metropolitan Magistrates." What is the most significant consequence of this change?

a. It will lead to the abolition of all Magistrate courts in major cities.

b. It makes the jurisdiction and powers of magistrates uniform across the entire country, irrespective of a city's population.

c. It increases the powers of Executive Magistrates in former metropolitan areas.

d. It requires all cases in former metropolitan areas to be tried exclusively by Sessions Courts.

88. Which chapter of BSA, 2023 deals with “OF THE EXCLUSION OF ORAL EVIDENCE BY DOCUMENTARY EVIDENCE”?

a. CHAPTER VII

b. CHAPTER VI

c. CHAPTER V

d. CHAPTER IV

89. If the attesting witness can be found, but denies or does not recall the execution of the document, which section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam would be relevant?

a. Section 67

b. Section 68

c. Section 70

d. Section 71

90. According to Section 64 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, when is secondary evidence of a document's contents generally inadmissible?

a. When a party has not given prior notice to produce the original document.

b. When the original is lost.

c. When the original has been destroyed.

d. When the document is a public document.

91. Which section deals with “Proof of documents by primary evidence”?

a. Section 61

b. Section 59

c. Section 50

d. Section 62

92. According to Section 4 of the BSA, facts that are so connected with a fact in issue as to form part of the same transaction are:

a. Inadmissible

b. Always admissible

c. Admissible if they are relevant.

d. Irrelevant

93. In a representative suit (e.g., by a trustee), when are statements made by that party considered admissions under Section 16(2) of the BSA?

a. Always, regardless of the capacity in which they were made.

b. Only if they were made while the party held that representative character.

c. Only if they were made in a personal capacity.

d. Never, as representatives cannot make admissions.

94. Section 34 of the BSA, 2023, states that a previous judgment is relevant to:

a. Determine the character of the parties.

b. Bar a second suit or trial.

c. Prove the facts admitted in the previous suit.

d. Provide opinion on a point of law.

95. Under Section 38 of the BSA, 2023, if a judgment, order, or decree is proved to have been obtained by "fraud or collusion", or if the Court was "incompetent" to pass it, what can be done?

a. The judgment remains binding until overturned by a higher court.

b. The court must accept the judgment as valid evidence.

c. The fraud, collusion, or incompetency may be proved to render the judgment irrelevant.

d. Only a separate suit can challenge the judgment's validity.

96. In a defamation case, A is accused of defaming B. The fact that A had previously published imputations about B, showing ill-will, is relevant to prove:

a. A's good faith in the publication

b. A's reputation

c. B's reputation

d. A's intention to harm B's reputation

97. The BSA addresses the principle of a "dying declaration." What is a key change regarding its admissibility?

a. It is always admissible, regardless of whether the person was in expectation of death.

b. It is never admissible in court.

c. It is a relevant fact in the trial of the deceased's murder.

d. It can now be recorded by an audio-video electronic device in the presence of a magistrate.

98. What does Section 87 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, establish a presumption for?

a. Electronic records and messages

b. Electronic Signature Certificates

c. Digital signature of foreign judicial records

d. Electronic agreements

99. As per Section 2(2) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, if a term used in the Act is undefined, it must be interpreted using the definitions provided in:

a. The Indian Penal Code, 1860, and the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

b. The Information Technology Act, 2000, the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, and the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.

c. Precedent-setting judgments of the Supreme Court of India.

d. Its common, ordinary meaning, as is standard practice.

100. Under Section 26 of the BSA, 2023, a dying declaration is relevant even if the person making it was not expecting death. This is a significant change from the earlier law. Which of the following statements about this provision is correct?

a. It makes all statements by a deceased person admissible, regardless of context.

b. It expands the scope of dying declarations to include statements made without the fear of immediate death, as long as they concern the cause or circumstances of death.

c. It means the statement is now considered conclusive proof.

d. The statement is only relevant in proceedings where the cause of death is the main fact in issue.